Valid 350-401 ENCOR Practice Exam Are Online For CCNP Enterprise Certification

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Passing 350-401 Cisco ENCOR exam should be the first step to complete CCNP Enterprise certification. It is very good for candidates to choose valid 350-401 ENCOR online resource to prepare for Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) certification exam well. 350-401 ENCOR is the core exam for CCNP Enterprise certification to test your knowledge and skills related to implementing core enterprise network technologies. To help candidates master all the high-coverage exam questions and answers, we have released valid 350-401 ENCOR practice exam online to help you pass 350-401 exam.

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Page 1 of 10

1. Drag and drop the solutions that comprise Cisco Cyber Threat Defense from the left onto the objectives they accomplish on the right.

2. What are two characteristics of Cisco SD-Access elements? (Choose two)

Fabric endpoints are connected directly to the border node

The border node is required for communication between fabric and nonfabric devices

The control plane node has the full RLOC-to-EID mapping database

Traffic within the fabric always goes through the control plane node

The border node has the full RLOC-to-EID mapping database

3. Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must assign an IP address of 192.168.1.1/24 to the GigabitEthemet1 interface.

Which two commands must be added to the existing configuration to accomplish this task? (Choose two)

Router(config-vrf)#address-family ipv6

Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

Router(config-vrf)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

Router(config-if)#address-family ipv4

Router(config-vrf)#address-family ipv4

4. What is the data policy in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

list of ordered statements that define node configurations and authentication used within the SD-WAN overlay

Set of statements that defines how data is forwarded based on IP packet information and specific VPNs

detailed database mapping several kinds of addresses with their corresponding location

group of services tested to guarantee devices and links liveliness within the SD -WAN overlay

5. Refer to the exhibit.

Which action resolves the EtherChannel issue between SW2 and SW3?

Configure switchport mode trunk on SW2

Configure switchport nonegotiate on SW3

Configure channel-group 1 mode desirable on both interfaces

Configure channel-group 5 mode active on both interfaces

6. Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer configures OSPF and reviews the router configuration.

Which interface or interfaces are able to establish OSPF adjacency?

GigabitEthemet0/1 and GigabitEthernet0/1.40

Gigabit Ethernet0/0 and GigabitEthemet0/1

only GigabitEthernet0/0

only GigabitEthernet0/1

7. Refer to the exhibit.

What step resolves the authentication issue?

restart the vsmart host

target 192.168.100.82 in the URI

change the port to 12446

use basic authentication

8. Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must simplify the IPsec configuration by enabling IPsec over GRE using IPsec profiles.

Which two configuration changes accomplish this? (Choose two)

Apply the crypto map to the tunnel interface and change the tunnel mode to tunnel mode ipsec ipv4

Remove all configuration related to crypto map from R1 and R2 and eliminate the ACL 100

Remove the crypto map and modify the ACL to allow traffic between 10.10.0.0/24 to 10.20.0.0/24

Create an IPsec profile, associate the transform-set, and apply the profile to the tunnel interface

9. Which encryption hashing algorithm does NTP use for authentication?

SSL

AES256

AES128

MD5

10. What is a VPN in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

virtual channel used to carry control plane information

attribute to identify a set of services offered in specific places in the SD -WAN fabric

common exchange point between two different services

virtualized environment that provides traffic isolation and segmentation in the SD -WAN fabric

Page 2 of 10

11. Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the orchestration tools that they describe on the right.

12. Refer to the exhibit.

Communication between London and New York is down.

Which command set must be applied to resolve this issue?

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

13. What is an emulated machine that has dedicated compute, memory, and storage resources and a fully installed operating system?

host

virtual machine

container

mainframe

14. Which two methods are used to reduce the AP coverage area? (Choose two)

Reduce AP transmit power

Increase minimum mandatory data rate

Reduce channel width from 40 MHz to 20 MHz

Enable Fastlane

Disable 2.4 GHz and use only 5 GHz

15. Which data is properly formatted with JSON?

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

16. Drag and drop the descriptions of the VSS technology from the left to the right. Not all options are used.

17. Refer to the exhibit.

All switches are configured with the default port priority value.

Which two commands ensure that traffic from PC1 is forwarded over Gi1/3 trunk port between DWS1 and DSW2? (Choose two)

DWS1(config-if)#spanning-tree port-priority 0

DSW2(config-if)#spanning-tree port-priority 16

DSW1(config-if)#interface gi1/3

DSW2(config-if)#interface gi1/3

DSW2(config-if)#spanning-tree port-priority 128

18. In a three-tier hierarchical campus network design, which action is a design best-practice for the core layer?

provide QoS prioritization services such as marking, queueing, and classification for critical network traffic

provide advanced network security features such as 802. IX, DHCP snooping, VACLs, and port security

provide redundant Layer 3 point-to-point links between the core devices for more predictable and faster convergence

provide redundant aggregation for access layer devices and first-hop redundancy protocols such as VRRP

19. Which two network problems indicate a need to implement QoS in a campus network? (Choose two)

port flapping

misrouted network packets

excess jitter

bandwidth-related packet loss

duplicate IP addresses

20. In a Cisco SD-Access solution, what is the role of the Identity Services Engine?

It provides GUI management and abstraction via apps that share context.

It is leveraged for dynamic endpoint to group mapping and policy definition.

It is used to analyze endpoint to app flows and monitor fabric status.

It manages the LISP EID database.

Page 3 of 10

21. A customer has completed the installation of a Wi-Fi 6 greenfield deployment at their new campus. They want to leverage Wi-Fi 6 enhanced speeds on the trusted employee WLAN. To configure the employee WLAN, which two Layer 2 security policies should be used? (Choose two)

WPA (AES)

WPA2 (AES) + WEP

802.1X

OPEN

22. Which outcome is achieved with this Python code?

client.connect (ip, port=22,username=usr, password=pswd)

stdin, stdout, stderr = client.exec_command('show ip bgp 192.168.10100 bestpathn')

print(stdout)

displays the output of the show command in a formatted way

connects to a Cisco device using SSH and exports the routing table information

connects to a Cisco device using Telnet and exports the routing table information

connects to a Cisco device using SSH and exports the BGP table for the prefix

23. What is YANG used for?

scraping data via CLI

providing a transport for network configuration data between client and server

processing SNMP read-only polls

describing data models

24. Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration change ensures that R1 is the active gateway whenever it is in a functional state for the 172.30.110.0/24 network?

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

25. Refer to the exhibit.

Which JSON syntax is derived from this data?

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

26. An engineer creates the configuration below.

Drag and drop the authentication methods from the left into the order of priority on the right. Not all options are used.

27. Refer to the exhibit.

Which two facts does the device output confirm? (Choose two)

The device is using the default HSRP hello timer

The standby device is configured with the default HSRP priority

The device’s HSRP group uses the virtual IP address 10.0.3.242.

The device is configured with the default HSRP priority

The device sends unicast messages to its peers

28. Based on the output below, which Python code shows the value of the “upTime” key?

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

29. Which two actions, when applied in the LAN network segment, will facilitate Layer 3 CAPWAP discovery for lightweight AP? (Choose two)

Utilize DHCP option 17

Utilize DHCP option 43

Configure WLC IP address on LAN switch

Enable port security on the switch port

Configure an ip helper-address on the router interface

30. Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied to R1 to enable R1 to reach the server at 172.16.0.1?

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Page 4 of 10

31. The following system log message is presented after a network administrator configures a GRE tunnel:

Why is Tunnel 0 disabled?

Because the tunnel cannot reach its tunnel destination

Because the best path to the tunnel destination is through the tunnel itself

Because dynamic routing is not enabled

Because the router cannot recursively identify its egress forwarding interface

32. What is provided by the Stealth watch component of the Cisco Cyber Threat Defense solution?

real-time threat management to stop DDoS attacks to the core and access networks

real-time awareness of users, devices and traffic on the network

malware control

dynamic threat control for web traffic

33. How does Protocol Independent Multicast function?

It uses unicast routing information to perform the multicast forwarding function.

It uses the multicast routing table to perform the multicast forwarding function.

In sparse mode it establishes neighbor adjacencies and sends hello messages at 5 -second intervals.

It uses broadcast routing information to perform the multicast forwarding function.

34. Under which network conditions is an outbound QoS policy that is applied on a router WAN interface most beneficial?

under all network conditions

under network convergence conditions

under interface saturation conditions

under traffic classification and marking conditions

35. Which technology does VXLAN use to provide segmentation for Layer 2 and Layer 3 traffic?

bridge domain

VLAN

VRF

VNI

36. A company has an existing Cisco 5520 HA cluster using SSO. An engineer deploys a new single Cisco Catalyst 9800 WLC to test new features. The engineer successfully configures a mobility tunnel between the 5520 cluster and 9800 WLC. Clients connected to the corporate WLAN roam seamlessly between access points on the 5520 and 9800 WLC. After a failure on the primary 5520 WLC, all WLAN services remain functional; however clients cannot roam between the 5520 and 9800 controllers without dropping their connection.

Which feature must be configured to remedy the issue?

mobility MAC on the 5520 cluster

mobility MAC on the 9800 WLC

new mobility on the 5520 cluster

new mobility on the 9800 WLC

37. What are two methods of ensuring that the multicast RPF check passes without changing the unicast routing table? (Choose two)

disabling BGP routing protocol

implementing static mroutes

disabling the interface of the router back to the multicast source

implementing MBGP

implementing OSPF routing protocol

38. What is the result when an active route processor fails in a design that combines NSF with SSO?

An NSF-aware device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network

The standby route processor temporarily forwards packets until route convergence is complete

An NSF-capable device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network

The standby route processor immediately takes control and forwards packets along known routes

39. What is a benefit of a virtual machine when compared with a physical server?

Deploying a virtual machine is technically less complex than deploying a physical server.

Virtual machines increase server processing performance.

The CPU and RAM resources on a virtual machine cannot be affected by other virtual machines.

Multiple virtual servers can be deployed on the same physical server without having to buy additional hardware.

40. What is the wireless received signal strength indicator?

The value of how strong the wireless signal is leaving the antenna using transmit power, cable loss, and antenna gain

The value given to the strength of the wireless signal received compared to the noise level

The value of how much wireless signal is lost over a defined amount of distance

The value of how strong a tireless signal is receded, measured in dBm

Page 5 of 10

41. Which controller is capable of acting as a STUN server during the onboarding process of Edge devices?

vManage

vSmart

vBond

PNP server

42. What is the process for moving a virtual machine from one host machine to another with no downtime?

live migration

disaster recovery

high availability

multisite replication

43. What are two features of NetFlow flow monitoring? (Choose two)

Can track ingress and egress information

Include the flow record and the flow importer

Copies all ingress flow information to an interface

Does not required packet sampling on interfaces

Can be used to track multicast, MPLS, or bridged traffic

44. Which method should an engineer use to deal with a long-standing contention issue between any two VMs on the same host?

Adjust the resource reservation limits

Reset the host

Reset the VM

Live migrate the VM to another host

45. What is the recommended MTU size for a Cisco SD-Access Fabric?

4464

9100

1500

17914

46. What does the number in an NTP stratum level represent?

The number of hops it takes to reach the master time server.

The amount of drift between the device clock and true time.

The amount of offset between the device clock and true time.

The number of hops it takes to reach the authoritative time source.

47. Refer to the exhibit.

R1(config)#ip sla 1

R1(config-ip-sla)#icmp-echo 172.20.20.2 source-interface FastEthernet1/0 R1(config-ip-sla-echo)#timeout 5000 R1(config-ip-sla-echo)#frequency 10

R1(config-ip-sla-echo)#threshold 500

R1(config)#ip sla schedule 1 start-time now life forever

R1(config)#track 10 ip sla 1 reachability

R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.20.20.2

After implementing the configuration 172.20.20.2 stops replaying to ICMP echoes, but the default route fails to be removed.

What is the reason for this behavior?

The source-interface is configured incorrectly.

The destination must be 172.30.30.2 for icmp-echo

The default route is missing the track feature

The threshold value is wrong

48. Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of antenna is show on the radiation patterns?

Dipole

Yagi

Patch

Omnidirectional

49. Drag and drop characteristics of PIM dense mode from the left to the right.

50. Refer to the exhibit.

Edge-01

track 10 interface GigabitEthernet0/0 line-protocol

!

interface GigabitEthernet0/1

ip address 10.104.110.2 255.255.255.0

vrrp 10 ip 10.104.110.100

vrrp 10 priority 120

Edge-02

interface GigabitEthernet0/1

ip address 10.104.110.3 255.255.255.0

vrrp 10 ip 10.104.110.100

Object tracking has been configured for VRRP enabled routers Edge-01 and Edge-02.

Which commands cause Edge-02 to preempt Edge-01 in the event that interface G0/0 goes down on Edge-01?

Option A

Edge-01(config)#interface G0/1

Edge-01(config-if)#vrrp 10 track 10

decrement 10

Option B

Edge-02(config)#interface G0/1

Edge-02(config-if)#vrrp 10 track 10

decrement 30

Option C

Edge-02(config)#interface G0/1

Edge-02(config-if)#vrrp 10 track 10

decrement 10

Option D

Edge-01(config)#interface G0/1

Edge-01(config-if)#vrrp 10 track 10

decrement 30

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Page 6 of 10

51. Which protocol is implemented to establish secure control plane adjacencies between Cisco SD-WAN nodes?

IKE

DTLS

IPsec

ESP

52. Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of introducing the sampler feature into the Flexible NetFlow configuration on the router?

NetFlow updates to the collector are sent 50% less frequently.

Every second IPv4 packet is forwarded to the collector for inspection.

CPU and memory utilization are reduced when compared with what is required for full NetFlow.

The resolution of sampling data increases, but it requires more performance from the router.

53. When does a stack master lose its role?

When the priority value of a stack member is changed to a higher value

When a switch with a higher priority is added to the stack

When the stack master is reset

When a stack member fails

54. What is the calculation that is used to measure the radiated power of a signal after it has gone through the radio, antenna cable, and antenna?

dBi

dBm

EIRP

55. After a redundant route processor failure occurs on a Layer 3 device, which mechanism allows for packets to be forwarded from a neighboring router based on the most recent tables?

RPVST+

RP failover

BFD

NSF

56. What is the differences between TCAM and the MAC address table?

Router prefix lookups happens in CA

MAC address table lookups happen in TCAM

The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match

The MAC address table is contained in CA

ACL and QoS information is stored in TCAM

TCAM is used to make Layer 2 forwarding decisions. CAM is used to build routing tables

57. Which two southbound interfaces originate from Cisco DNA Center and terminate at fabric underlay switches? (Choose two)

UDP 67: DHCP

ICMP: Discovery

TCP 23: Telnet

UDP 162: SNMP

UDP 6007: NetFlow

58. What is the function of a control-plane node in a Cisco SD-Access solution?

to connect APs and wireless endpoints to the SD-Access fabric

to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD Access fabric

to implement policies and communicate with networks outside the fabric

to run a mapping system that manages endpoint to network device relationships

59. Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result when a switch that is running PVST+ is added to this network?

Spanning tree is disabled automatically on the network

DSW2 operates in Rapid PVST+ and the new switch operates in PVST+

Both switches operate in the PVST+ mode

Both switches operate in the Rapid PVST+ mode

60. What is a characteristic of a next-generation firewall?

required in each layer of the network

filters traffic using Layer 3 and Layer 4 information only

only required at the network perimeter

provides intrusion prevention

Page 7 of 10

61. Which measure is used by an NTP server to indicate its closeness to the authoritative time source?

stratum

hop count

time zone

latency

62. Which two results occur if Cisco DNA Center loses connectivity to devices in the SD - Access fabric? (Choose two)

All devices reload after detecting loss of connection to Cisco DNA Center

Already connected users are unaffected, but new users cannot connect

Users lose connectivity

Cisco DNA Center is unable to collect monitoring data in Assurance

User connectivity is unaffected

63. Which two components are supported by LISP? (Choose two)

proxy ETR

HMAC algorithm

route reflector

egress tunnel router

spoke

64. Drag and drop the virtual component from the left onto their descriptions on the right.

65. How does EIGRP differ from OSPF?

EIGRP is more prone to routing loops than OSPF

EIGRP supports equal or unequal path cost, and OSPF supports only equal path cost.

EIGRP has a full map of the topology, and OSPF only knows directly connected neighbors

EIGRP uses more CPU and memory than OSPF

66. Refer to the exhibit.

What does the output confirm about the switch’s spanning tree configuration?

The spanning-tree mode stp ieee command was entered on this switch

The spanning-tree operation mode for this switch is PVST

The spanning-tree operation mode for this switch is IEEE

The spanning-tree operation mode for this switch is PVST+

67. A customer has recently implemented a new wireless infrastructure using WLC -5520S at a site directly next to a large commercial airport Users report that they intermittently lose Wi-Fi connectivity, and troubleshooting reveals it is due to frequent channel changes.

Which two actions fix this issue? (Choose two)

Remove UNII-2 and Extended UNII-2 channels from the 5 GHz channel list

Restore the DCA default settings because this automatically avoids channel interference

Disable DFS channels to prevent interference with Doppler radar

Enable DFS channels because they are immune to radar interference

Configure channels on the UNII-2 and the Extended UNII-2 sub-bands of the 5 GHz band only

68. What is a characteristic of para-virtualization?

Para-virtualization guest servers are unaware of one another

Para-virtualization allows direct access between the guest OS and the hypervisor

Para-virtualization lacks support for containers

Para-virtualization allows the host hardware to be directly accessed

69. Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the QoS components they describe on the right.

70. A customer requests a network design that supports these requirements:

* FHRP redundancy

* multivendor router environment

* IPv4 and IPv6 hosts

Which protocol does the design include?

GLBP

VRRP version 2

VRRP version 3

HSRP version 2

Page 8 of 10

71. Refer to the exhibit.

What happens to access interfaces where VLAN 222 is assigned?

They are placed into an inactive state

A description “RSPAN” is added

STP BPDU guard is enabled

They cannot provide PoE

72. Which solution do IaaS service providers use to extend a Layer 2 segment across a Layer 3 network?

VXLAN

VTEP

VLAN

VRF

73. What is a characteristic of MACsec?

802.1AE provides encryption and authentication services

802.1AE is built between the host and switch using the MKA protocol, which negotiates encryption keys based on the master session key from a successful 802.1X session

802.1AE is built between the host and switch using the MKA protocol using keys generated via the Diffie-Hellman algorithm (anonymous encryption mode)

802.1AE is negotiated using Cisco AnyConnect NAM and the SAP protocol

74. Which unit measures the power of a radio signal with reference to 1 milliwatt?

dBw

dBi

dBm

75. A company plans to implement intent-based networking in its campus infrastructure.

Which design facilities a migrate from a traditional campus design to a programmer fabric designer?

Layer 2 access

three-tier

two-tier

routed access

76. Which benefit is offered by a cloud infrastructure deployment but is lacking in an on-premises deployment?

efficient scalability

virtualization

storage capacity

supported systems

77. What is a benefit of deploying an on-premises infrastructure versus a cloud infrastructure deployment?

faster deployment times because additional infrastructure does not need to be purchased

lower latency between systems that are physically located near each other

less power and cooling resources needed to run infrastructure on-premises

ability to quickly increase compute power without the need to install additional hardware

78. What are two reasons a company would choose a cloud deployment over an on-prem deployment? (Choose two)

Cloud deployments require long implementation times due to capital expenditure processes. OnPrem deployments can be accomplished quickly using operational expenditure processes

Cloud costs adjust up or down depending on the amount of resources consumed. On- Prem costs for hardware, power, and space are ongoing regardless of usage

In a cloud environment, the company controls technical issues. On-prem environments rely on the service provider to resolve technical issue

Cloud resources scale automatically to an increase in demand. On-prem requires additional capital expenditure

In a cloud environment, the company is in full control of access to their data. On-prem risks access to data due to service provider outages

79. In a Cisco Catalyst switch equipped with two supervisor modules an administrator must temporally remove the active supervisor from the chassis to perform hardware maintenance on it.

Which mechanism ensure that the active supervisor removal is not disruptive to the network operation?

NSF/NSR

SSO

HSRP

VRRP

80. Which PAgP mode combination prevents an EtherChannel from forming?

auto/auto

desirable/desirable

auto/desirable

desirable

Page 9 of 10

81. Refer to the exhibit.

A port channel is configured between SW2 and SW3. SW2 is not running Cisco operating system. When all physical connections are made, the port channel does not establish.

Based on the configuration excerpt of SW3, what is the cause of the problem?

The port channel on SW2 is using an incompatible protocol

The port-channel trunk is not allowing the native VLAN

The port-channel should be set to auto

The port-channel interface lead balance should be set to src-mac

82. Refer to the exhibit.

After an engineer configures an EtherChannel between switch SW1 and switch SW2, this error message is logged on switch SW2.

Based on the output from SW1 and the log message received on Switch SW2, what action should the engineer take to resolve this issue?

Configure the same protocol on the EtherChannel on switch SW1 and SW2.

Connect the configuration error on interface Gi0/1 on switch SW1.

Define the correct port members on the EtherChannel on switch SW1.

Correct the configuration error on interface Gi0/0 switch SW1.

83. Refer to exhibit.

VLANs 50 and 60 exist on the trunk links between all switches. All access ports on SW3 are configured for VLAN 50 and SW1 is the VTP server.

Which command ensures that SW3 receives frames only from VLAN 50?

SW1(config)#vtp pruning

SW3(config)#vtp mode transparent

SW2(config)#vtp pruning

SW1(config)#vtp mode transparent

84. Refer to the exhibit.

SwitchC connects HR and Sales to the Core switch. However, business needs require that no traffic from the Finance VLAN traverse this switch.

Which command meets this requirement?

SwitchC(config)#vtp pruning

SwitchC(config)#vtp pruning vlan 110

SwitchC(config)#interface port-channel 1 SwitchC(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan add 210,310

SwitchC(config)#interface port-channel 1 SwitchC(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 110

85. Refer to the exhibit.

Company policy restricts VLAN 10 to be allowed only on SW1 and SW2. All other VLANs can be on all three switches. An administrator has noticed that VLAN 10 has propagated to SW3.

Which configuration corrects the issue?

SW2(config)#interface gi1/2 SW2(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

SW1(config)#interface gi1/1 SW1(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9,11-4094

SW2(config)#interface gi1/1 SW2(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

SW2(config)#interface gi1/2 SW2(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9,11-4094

86. Which function does a fabric edge node perform in an SD-Access deployment?

Connects the SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks

Connects endpoints to the fabric and forwards their traffic

Provides reachability border nodes in the fabric underlay

Encapsulates end-user data traffic into LIS

87. Which action is the vSmart controller responsible for in an SD-WAN deployment?

onboard vEdge nodes into the SD-WAN fabric

distribute security information for tunnel establishment between vEdge routers

manage, maintain, and gather configuration and status for nodes within the SD -WAN fabric

gather telemetry data from vEdge routers

88. Which statement about a Cisco APIC controller versus a more traditional SDN controller is true?

APIC uses a policy agent to translate policies into instructions

APIC supports OpFlex as a Northbound protocol

APIC does support a Southbound REST API

APIC uses an imperative model

89. What the role of a fusion in an SD-Access solution?

provides connectivity to external networks

acts as a DNS server

performs route leaking between user-defined virtual networks and shared services

provides additional forwarding capacity to the fabric

90. Which statement about a fabric access point is true?

It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node

It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node

It is in local mode an must connected directly to the fabric edge switch

It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch

Page 10 of 10

91. On which protocol or technology is the fabric data plane based in Cisco SD -Access fabric?

LISP

IS-IS

Cisco TrustSec

VXLAN

92. Which description of an SD-Access wireless network infrastructure deployment is true?

The access point is part of the fabric underlay

The WLC is part of the fabric underlay

The access point is part the fabric overlay

The wireless client is part of the fabric overlay

93. Which controller is the single plane of management for Cisco SD-WAN?

vBond

vEdge

vSmart

vManage

94. When a wired client connects to an edge switch in an SDA fabric, which component decides whether the client has access to the network?

control-plane node

Identity Service Engine

RADIUS server

edge node

95. What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two)

core switch

vBond controller

edge node

access switch

border node

96. Which component handles the orchestration plane of the Cisco SD-WAN?

vBond

vSmart

vManage

vEdge

97. In an SD-Access solution what is the role of a fabric edge node?

to connect external Layer 3- network to the SD-Access fabric

to connect wired endpoint to the SD-Access fabric

to advertise fabric IP address space to external network

to connect the fusion router to the SD-Access fabric

98. What is the role of the vsmart controller in a Cisco SD-WAN environment?

IT performs authentication and authorization

It manages the control plane.

It is the centralized network management system.

It manages the data plane.

99. In a Cisco SD-WAN solution, how is the health of a data plane tunnel monitored?

with IP SLA

ARP probing

using BFD

with OMP

100. Which technology is used to provide Layer 2 and Layer 3 logical networks in the Cisco SD - Access architecture?

underlay network

overlay network

VPN routing/forwarding

easy virtual network

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