Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA Certification 200-301 Practice Exam

Regina2021-07-28T09:53:13+00:00

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As before, CCNA contains a series of specialized certifications. After upgraded, 200-301 exam is the only one which help you to be a Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA certified. CCNA certification 200-301 exam mainly validates your skills and knowledge in network fundamentals, network access, IP connectivity, IP services, security fundamentals, and automation and programmability. When decide to take 200-301 exam, you can choose the perfect CCNA certification 200-301 practice exam as your online study guide. Before choosing the 200-301 CCNA practice exam, just check Cisco 200-301 free demo online first.

Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA 200-301 Free Exam Demo

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1. What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)

reduced operational costs

reduced hardware footprint

faster changes with more reliable results

fewer network failures

increased network security

2. Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?

ip address dhcp

ip helper-address

ip dhcp pool

ip dhcp client

3. Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?

disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices

setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller

allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another

configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps

4. When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

2000::/3

2002::5

FC00::/7

FF02::1

FF02::2

5. Which option about JSON is true?

uses predefined tags or angle brackets (<>) to delimit markup text

used to describe structured data that includes arrays

used for storing information

similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML

6. Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?

global unicast

unique local

link-local

multicast

7. Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plaintext on a router or switch?

enable secret

service password-encryption

username Cisco password encrypt

enable password

8. What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two)

OpenFlow

NETCONF

Thrift

CORBA

DSC

9. Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?

The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link

The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device

The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen

The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen

10. Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two)

adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software

SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment

customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises

REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center

modular design that is upgradable as needed

Page 2 of 10

11. An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company’s security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code.

Which type of security program is in place?

Physical access control

Social engineering attack

brute force attack

user awareness

12. Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in pre-shared key mode?

TKIP with RC4

RC4

AES-128

AES-256

13. Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image

The ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch

IP routing must be enabled on the switch

A console password must be configured on the switch

Telnet must be disabled on the switch

14. Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

outside global

outsdwde local

inside global

insride local

outside public

inside public

15. Refer to the exhibit.

Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?

10.10.10.0/28

10.10.13.0/25

10.10.13.144/28

10.10.13.208/29

16. How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?

It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination m the IP routing table

It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN

It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links in the data path

It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN

17. In Which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them

A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks

A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch

A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch

18. Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)

It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets

It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity

It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets

It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up

It supports protocol discovery

19. A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment.

Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?

CDP

SNMP

SMTP

ARP

20. Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this configuration?

The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted

The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch

Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing

The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets

Page 3 of 10

21. A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence.

Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)

runts

giants

frame

CRC

input errors

22. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?

TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets

UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits

UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol

TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery

23. When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?

It multiple the active K value by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric

For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the lowest bandwidth

It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost

It count the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the router with the lowest metric

24. Refer to the exhibit.

Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?

adminadmin123

default

testing1234

cisco123

25. Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?

Configure the version of SSH

Configure VTY access

Create a user with a password

Assign a DNS domain name

26. Which output displays a JSON data representation?

A)

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

27. What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?

Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database

Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password

Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform

Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates

28. A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC.

Which action is taken by the phone?

It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged

It drops the traffic

It tags the traffic with the default VLAN

It tags the traffic with the native VLAN

29. An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routers.

Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?

interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252

interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248

interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248

interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252

30. What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

Central AP management requires more complex configurations

Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method

It supports autonomous and lightweight APs

It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually

Page 4 of 10

31. What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)

The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI

It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers.

It moves the control plane to a central point

It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions

It uses Telnet to report system issues

32. Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols?

dual algorithm

metric

administrative distance

hop count

33. Refer to Exhibit.

How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?

It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports

It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports

It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports

It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports

34. Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

sniffer

mesh

flexconnect

local

35. Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)

YAML

JSON

EBCDIC

SGML

XML

36. What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)

when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again

when the cable length limits are exceeded

when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

when Carriner Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used

when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

37. Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor.

What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?

110

115

38. What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?

It enables BPDU messages

It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time

It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded

It immediately enables the port in the listening state

39. What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?

The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame

The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN

The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning

The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table

40. Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this configuration?

All ARP packets are dropped by the switch

Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server

All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted

The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings

Page 5 of 10

41. Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.

Which IP address is the source IP?

10.4.4.4

10.4.4.5

172.23.103.10

172.23.104.4

42. Refer to the exhibit.

Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?

192.168.16.0/21

192.168.16.0/24

192.168 26.0/26

192.168.16.0/27

43. Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

2000::/3

FC00::/7

FE80::/10

FF00::/8

44. Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)

management interface settings

QoS settings

Ip address of one or more access points

SSID

Profile name

45. Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting Interface by 256

The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor

The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route

The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link

The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route

46. Refer to Exhibit.

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status

The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain

The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link

The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state

47. Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?

lldp timer

lldp holdtimt

lldp reinit

lldp tlv-select

48. An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router.

Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?

Exchange

2-way

Full

Init

49. Refer to the exhibit.

The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1.

How is OSPF configured?

The interface is not participating in OSPF

A point-to-point network type is configured

The default Hello and Dead timers are in use

There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface

50. An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch.

Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)

Configure the ports in an EtherChannel

Administratively shut down the ports

Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99

Configure the ports as trunk ports

Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol

Page 6 of 10

51. Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

Bronze

Platinum

Silver

Gold

52. Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1. The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path.

What is the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?

Traffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces

Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1

Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is a symmetrical

Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the Gi0/0 interface remains in the routing table

53. Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor

The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage

Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch

The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources

54. Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?

floating static route

host route

default route

network route

55. Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP. All other computers must be able to access the web server.

Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?

A)

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

56. Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable.

What is the result of this configuration?

The link is in a down state

The link is in an error disables state

The link is becomes an access port

The link becomes a trunk port

57. Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?

CPU ACL

TACACS

Flex ACL

RADIUS

58. A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP, by default, which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

port-to-multipoint

broadcast

point-to-point

nonbroadcast

59. Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?

passive

mode on

auto

active

60. A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF by default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?

point-to-multipoint

point-to-point

broadcast

nonbroadcast

Page 7 of 10

61. An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services.

Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

platform-as-a-service

software-as-a-service

network-as-a-service

infrastructure-as-a-service

62. Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?

autonomous

lightweight

bridge

mobility express

63. Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?

ipv6 address dhcp

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64

ipv6 address autoconfig

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local

64. Refer to Exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path.

Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012:1 5

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023:2 5

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5

65. Refer to the exhibit.

Which command provides this output?

show ip route

show ip interface

show interface

show cdp neighbor

66. Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)

The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN

The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router

Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them

The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding

The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

67. Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?

When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is generated

As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused

If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects

If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err disabled

68. Which 802.11 frame type is association response?

management

protected frame

control

action

69. Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two)

Enable NTP authentication

Verify the time zone

Disable NTP broadcasts

Specify the IP address of the NTP server

Set the NTP server private key

70. Refer to the exhibit.

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites.

Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another? (Choose two)

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router

Configure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router

Page 8 of 10

71. Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?

Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms

VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically

Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down

After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUS

72. Refer to exhibit.

Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?

It is a broadcast IP address

The router does not support /28 mask

It belongs to a private IP address range

It is a network IP address

73. When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?

The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup

The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary

The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup

The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table

74. What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

It only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment

It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization

It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration

It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode

75. Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

172.9.0.0/16

172.28.0.0/16

192.0.0.0/8

209.165.201.0/24

76. Refer to the exhibit.

What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?

10.10.1.10

10.10.10.20

172.16.15.10

192.168.0.1

77. Refer to the exhibit.

If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2 only

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1 only

It cannot send packets to 10.10.13.128/25

It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2

78. When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

IKEv2

IKEv1

IPsec

MD5

79. Refer to the exhibit.

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2. The configuration started to work as intended.

Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two)

Add a “permit ip any any” statement to the begining of ACL 101 for allowed traffic

Add a “permit ip any any” statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic

The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101

The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1

The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2

80. Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

auto

active

desirable

Page 9 of 10

81. A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths.

Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?

cost

adminstrative distance

metric

as-path

82. R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?

IS-IS

RIP

Internal EIGRP

OSPF

83. Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?

0000.5E00.010a

0005.3711.0975

0000.0C07.AC99

0007.C070/AB01

84. Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?

Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane

Only traditional networks natively support centralized management

Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations

Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane

85. If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

A network device has restarted

An ARP inspection has failed

A routing instance has flapped

A debug operation is running

86. Refer to the exhibit.

With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

110

38443

3184439

87. Refer to the exhibit.

If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10 . 13.0.1 120 command, how does the router respond?

It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed

It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route

It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes

It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernet0/1

88. Refer to the Exhibit.

After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1.

Which error must be corrected?

There is a native VLAN mismatch

Access mode is configured on the switch ports

The PCs are in the incorrect VLAN

All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk

89. An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2-PSK.

Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?

WEP

RC4

AES

TKIP

90. Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?

To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured

The EtherChannel must be configured in “mode active”

When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic

Page 10 of 10

91. When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)

ASCII

base64

binary

decimal

hexadecimal

92. Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?

overlay

northbound

underlay

southbound

93. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown.

What is the correct configuration for SW2?

interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode active switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode active switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk

interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 2 mode auto switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 2 mode auto switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk

interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk

interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode passive switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode passive switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk

94. Refer to the exhibit.

A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2.

What causes this behavior?

trunk mode mismatches

allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination

native VLAN mismatches

VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet

95. What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFV2? (Choose two)

It requires the use of AR

It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.

It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.

It routes over links rather than over networks.

96. Which option is a valid IPv6 address?

2001:0000:130F::099a::12a

2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1

FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4

2004:1:25A4:886F::1

97. Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three)

one-to-many communication model

one-to-nearest communication model

any-to-many communication model

a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group

the same address for multiple devices in the group

delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device

98. Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two)

Global addresses start with 2000::/3

Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12

Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10

There is only one loopback address and it is ::1

If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface

99. What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72?

B514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72

B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72

B514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72

B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72

100. Which IPv6 address is valid?

2001:0db8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B

2001:0db8:0:130H::87C:140B

2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B

2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B

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